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Questions on Trinity

Questions on Trinity

In the name of Allah (the Almighty God), the Entirely Merciful, the Especially Merciful. Let me begin with the sincerest intention all for the sake of truth. The following questions I prepared are meant to seek the truth and truth only. I have no intention of attacking Christianity or Judaism, or any religion, all I want is to verify what they preach and study their scriptures. However, if there is something in the following questions that might go against you, I sincerely apologize, and I am open for any correction. I intend to have a dialogue and not to spread hatred. I prepared this in all honesty and tried my best to be respectful as much as possible in some sensitive questions.

Summary
  1. Who is God according to the Old Testament? Was He a triune God or absolutely one in nature?
    שְׁמַ֖ע יִשְׂרָאֵ֑ל יְהוָ֥ה אֱלֹהֵ֖ינוּ יְהוָ֥ה׀ אֶחָֽד׃
    “Hear, O Israel: The Lord our God, the Lord is one.
    Bible (ESV)
    Deuteronomy
    6:4
  2. Who is God according to Jesus (A.S.)? Was He a triune God or absolutely one in nature?
    αὕτη δέ ἐστιν ἡ αἰώνιος ζωή, ἵνα γινώσκωσιν σὲ τὸν μόνον ἀληθινὸν θεὸν καὶ ὃν ἀπέστειλας ἰησοῦν χριστόν.
    And this is eternal life, that they know you, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom you have sent.
    Bible (ESV)
    John
    17:3
  3. Who is the God of the Israelites according to Jesus (A.S.)? Did the Israelites worship the triuned nature God or the one absolute being -- the Father?
    ἀπεκρίθη Ἰησοῦς· Ἐὰν ἐγὼ δοξάσω ἐμαυτόν, ἡ δόξα μου οὐδέν ἐστιν· ἔστιν ὁ πατήρ μου ὁ δοξάζων με, ὃν ὑμεῖς λέγετε ὅτι θεὸς ἡμῶν ἐστιν,
    Jesus answered, "If I glorify myself, my glory is nothing. It is my Father who glorifies me, of whom you say, 'He is our God.'
    Bible (ESV)
    John
    8:54
  4. Will there be any God to come after the God of the Israelites?
    אַתֶּ֤ם עֵדַי֙ נְאֻם־יְהוָ֔ה וְעַבְדִּ֖י אֲשֶׁ֣ר בָּחָ֑רְתִּי לְמַ֣עַן תֵּ֠דְעוּ וְתַאֲמִ֨ינוּ לִ֤י וְתָבִ֙ינוּ֙ כִּֽי־אֲנִ֣י ה֔וּא לְפָנַי֙ לֹא־נ֣וֹצַר אֵ֔ל וְאַחֲרַ֖י לֹ֥א יִהְיֶֽה׃ ס אָנֹכִ֥י אָנֹכִ֖י יְהוָ֑ה וְאֵ֥ין מִבַּלְעָדַ֖י מוֹשִֽׁיעַ׃
    “You are my witnesses,” declares the Lord, “and my servant whom I have chosen, that you may know and believe me and understand that I am he. Before me no god was formed, nor shall there be any after me. I, I am the Lord, and besides me there is no savior.
    Bible (ESV)
    Isaiah
    43:10-11
  5. When Jesus (A.S.) was given the opportunity to teach trinity, did Jesus (A.S.) (knowing that the God of the Israelites is one supreme being, that is the Father) correct the belief of the learned Jew (a Scribe) and taught that God possesses a triune nature and that Jesus (A.S.) is part of it?
    εἰ δὲ ἐν πνεύματι θεοῦ ἐγὼ ἐκβάλλω τὰ δαιμόνια, ἄρα ἔφθασεν ἐφ᾽ ὑμᾶς ἡ βασιλεία τοῦ θεοῦ. ἢ πῶς δύναταί τις εἰσελθεῖν εἰς τὴν οἰκίαν τοῦ ἰσχυροῦ καὶ τὰ σκεύη αὐτοῦ ἁρπάσαι, ἐὰν μὴ πρῶτον δήσῃ τὸν ἰσχυρόν; καὶ τότε τὴν οἰκίαν αὐτοῦ διαρπάσει. ὁ μὴ ὢν μετ᾽ ἐμοῦ κατ᾽ ἐμοῦ ἐστιν, καὶ ὁ μὴ συνάγων μετ᾽ ἐμοῦ σκορπίζει. διὰ τοῦτο λέγω ὑμῖν, πᾶσα ἁμαρτία καὶ βλασφημία ἀφεθήσεται τοῖς ἀνθρώποις, ἡ δὲ τοῦ πνεύματος βλασφημία οὐκ ἀφεθήσεται. καὶ ὃς ἐὰν εἴπῃ λόγον κατὰ τοῦ υἱοῦ τοῦ ἀνθρώπου, ἀφεθήσεται αὐτῶ· ὃς δ᾽ ἂν εἴπῃ κατὰ τοῦ πνεύματος τοῦ ἁγίου, οὐκ ἀφεθήσεται αὐτῶ οὔτε ἐν τούτῳ τῶ αἰῶνι οὔτε ἐν τῶ μέλλοντι. ἢ ποιήσατε τὸ δένδρον καλὸν καὶ τὸν καρπὸν αὐτοῦ καλόν, ἢ ποιήσατε τὸ δένδρον σαπρὸν καὶ τὸν καρπὸν αὐτοῦ σαπρόν· ἐκ γὰρ τοῦ καρποῦ τὸ δένδρον γινώσκεται. γεννήματα ἐχιδνῶν, πῶς δύνασθε ἀγαθὰ λαλεῖν πονηροὶ ὄντες; ἐκ γὰρ τοῦ περισσεύματος τῆς καρδίας τὸ στόμα λαλεῖ.
    And one of the scribes came up and heard them disputing with one another, and seeing that he answered them well, asked him, "Which commandment is the most important of all?" Jesus answered, "The most important is, Hear, O Israel: The Lord our God, the Lord is one. And you shall love the Lord your God with all your heart and with all your soul and with all your mind and with all your strength. 'The second is this: You shall love your neighbor as yourself.' There is no other commandment greater than these." And the scribe said to him, "You are right, Teacher. You have truly said that he is one, and there is no other besides him. And to love him with all the heart and with all the understanding and with all the strength, and to love one's neighbor as oneself, is much more than all whole burnt offerings and sacrifices." And when Jesus saw that he answered wisely, he said to him, "You are not far from the kingdom of God." And after that no one dared to ask him any more questions.
    Bible (ESV)
    Mark
    12:28-34
  6. If righteousness were through the law, then we don't need the Crucifixion of Jesus (A.S.) according to Paul:
    οὐκ ἀθετῶ τὴν χάριν τοῦ θεοῦ· εἰ γὰρ διὰ νόμου δικαιοσύνη, ἄρα Χριστὸς δωρεὰν ἀπέθανεν.
    I do not nullify the grace of God, for if righteousness were through the law, then Christ died for no purpose.
    Bible (ESV)
    Galatians
    2:21
    However, Jesus (A.S.) came not to abolish the law. Who should we follow then, Jesus (A.S.) or Paul?
    μὴ νομίσητε ὅτι ἦλθον καταλῦσαι τὸν νόμον ἢ τοὺς προφήτας· οὐκ ἦλθον καταλῦσαι ἀλλὰ πληρῶσαι. ἀμὴν γὰρ λέγω ὑμῖν, ἕως ἂν παρέλθῃ ὁ οὐρανὸς καὶ ἡ γῆ, ἰῶτα ἓν ἢ μία κεραία οὐ μὴ παρέλθῃ ἀπὸ τοῦ νόμου ἕως ἂν πάντα γένηται. ὃς ἐὰν οὗν λύσῃ μίαν τῶν ἐντολῶν τούτων τῶν ἐλαχίστων καὶ διδάξῃ οὕτως τοὺς ἀνθρώπους, ἐλάχιστος κληθήσεται ἐν τῇ βασιλείᾳ τῶν οὐρανῶν· ὃς δ᾽ ἂν ποιήσῃ καὶ διδάξῃ, οὖτος μέγας κληθήσεται ἐν τῇ βασιλείᾳ τῶν οὐρανῶν.
    Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. For truly, I say to you, until heaven and earth pass away, not an iota, not a dot, will pass from the Law until all is accomplished. Therefore, whoever relaxes one of the least of these commandments and teaches others to do the same will be called least in the kingdom of heaven, but whoever does them and teaches them will be called great in the kingdom of heaven.
    Bible (ESV)
    Matthew
    5:17-19
Detailed Questions
  1. If Jesus (A.S.) is God, then he is omniscient. If he is omniscient, then why is he not knowledgeable of the time of his return?
    περὶ δὲ τῆς ἡμέρας ἐκείνης καὶ ὥρας οὐδεὶς οἶδεν, οὐδὲ οἱ ἄγγελοι τῶν οὐρανῶν οὐδὲ ὁ υἱός, εἰ μὴ ὁ πατὴρ μόνος.
    But concerning that day and hour no one knows, not even the angels of heaven, nor the Son, but the Father only.
    Bible (ESV)
    Matthew
    24:36
    I respect the belief of our Christian brothers, but I think there is no wrong in asking question so long as done respectfully and sincerely. For this verse, I want to clarify some of the arguments I received from my dialogue with my fellow Christian brothers. For example, one respond I received for this is that, the reason why Jesus (A.S.) is not knowledgeable of the time of his return, is due to the fact that he possesses a human nature as well. Hence, given this limitation, it is therefore reasonable to say that, only the Father knows the hour. While I understand that, but if that is the case, then why ONLY the Father? What about the Holy Spirit? Apologize, but what I learned is that the Holy Spirit is a God as well and not a human? So why the Father ONLY?
  2. If the godhead of the trinity are all equal, then why would Jesus (A.S.) say that the Father is greater than him?
    ἠκούσατε ὅτι ἐγὼ εἶπον ὑμῖν, ὑπάγω καὶ ἔρχομαι πρὸς ὑμᾶς. εἰ ἠγαπᾶτέ με ἐχάρητε ἄν, ὅτι πορεύομαι πρὸς τὸν πατέρα, ὅτι ὁ πατὴρ μείζων μού ἐστιν.
    You heard me say to you, I am going away, and I will come to you. If you loved me, you would have rejoiced, because I am going to the Father, for the Father is greater than I.
    Bible (ESV)
    John
    14:28
  3. If Jesus (A.S.) is God and is equal to the Father, why would he call the Father as his God?
    λέγει αὐτῇ ἰησοῦς, μή μου ἅπτου, οὔπω γὰρ ἀναβέβηκα πρὸς τὸν πατέρα· πορεύου δὲ πρὸς τοὺς ἀδελφούς μου καὶ εἰπὲ αὐτοῖς, ἀναβαίνω πρὸς τὸν πατέρα μου καὶ πατέρα ὑμῶν καὶ θεόν μου καὶ θεὸν ὑμῶν.
    Jesus said to her, "Do not cling to me, for I have not yet ascended to the Father; but go to my brothers and say to them, I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God."
    Bible (ESV)
    John
    20:17
  4. Christianity taught us that Jesus (A.S.) is a mediator (see 1 Timothy 2:5) between God and men, that is, we cannot worship God directly, because according to Jesus (A.S.) “. . .no one comes to the Father except through me” (see John 14:6). While that clearly justifies why our Christian brothers worship Jesus (A.S.), and I respect that, but if that is the case, why would he say/agree to worship the Father (directly without mediator?) and serve the Father only?
    τότε λέγει αὐτῶ ὁ ἰησοῦς, ὕπαγε, σατανᾶ· γέγραπται γάρ, κύριον τὸν θεόν σου προσκυνήσεις καὶ αὐτῶ μόνῳ λατρεύσεις.
    Then Jesus said to him, “Be gone, Satan! For it is written, "'You shall worship the Lord your God and him only shall you serve.'"
    Bible (ESV)
    Matthew
    4:10
    The word "written" in the above verse is also referenced to the following verse of the Old Testament:
    אֶת־יְהוָ֧ה אֱלֹהֶ֛יךָ תִּירָ֖א וְאֹתֹ֣ו תַעֲבֹ֑ד וּבִשְׁמֹ֖ו תִּשָּׁבֵֽעַ לֹ֣א תֵֽלְכ֔וּן אַחֲרֵ֖י אֱלֹהִ֣ים אֲחֵרִ֑ים מֵאֱלֹהֵי֙ הָֽעַמִּ֔ים אֲשֶׁ֖ר סְבִיבֹותֵיכֶֽם כִּ֣י אֵ֥ל קַנָּ֛א יְהוָ֥ה אֱלֹהֶ֖יךָ בְּקִרְבֶּ֑ךָ פֶּן־יֶ֠חֱרֶה אַף־יְהוָ֤ה אֱלֹהֶ֙יךָ֙ בָּ֔ךְ וְהִשְׁמִ֣ידְךָ֔ מֵעַ֖ל פְּנֵ֥י הָאֲדָמָֽה
    It is the Lord your God you shall fear. Him you shall serve and by his name you shall swear. You shall not go after other gods, the gods of the peoples who are around you -- for the Lord your God in your midst is a jealous God -- lest the anger of the Lord your God be kindled against you, and he destroy you from off the face of the earth.
    Bible (ESV)
    Deuteronomy
    6:13-15
    Given my limited knowledge, I’m not trying to make a conclusion, but correct me if I’m wrong. From the above verse, it seems to be very risky to add/associate a partner to the Father, for He is a jealous God, isn’t it? If we do so, the verse tells us that He will destroy us off from the face of the earth?

    Additional verse where Jesus (A.S.) commands us to worship the Father when we pray are given in the following verses:

    σὺ δὲ ὅταν προσεύχῃ, εἴσελθε εἰς τὸ ταμεῖόν σου καὶ κλείσας τὴν θύραν σου πρόσευξαι τῶ πατρί σου τῶ ἐν τῶ κρυπτῶ· καὶ ὁ πατήρ σου ὁ βλέπων ἐν τῶ κρυπτῶ ἀποδώσει σοι.
    But when you pray, go into your room and shut the door and pray to your Father who is in secret. And your Father who sees in secret will reward you.
    Bible (ESV)
    Matthew
    6:6
    There maybe context to this as what our Christian brothers mentioned in one of my dialogue with them, and I am indeed interested as to what is the context of it.

  5. If Jesus (A.S.) is God, how are we going to reconcile this with the following verse, where it says that God is invisible?
    λέγει αὐτοῖς ὁ ἰησοῦς, ἐμὸν βρῶμά ἐστιν ἵνα ποιήσω τὸ θέλημα τοῦ πέμψαντός με καὶ τελειώσω αὐτοῦ τὸ ἔργον.
    To the King of the ages, immortal, invisible, the only God, be honor and glory forever and ever. Amen.
    Bible (ESV)
    1 Timothy
    1:17
  6. I don't intend to attack the Churches, as I respect the priests and the pastors, so forgive me if I have to ask this question. If Jesus (A.S.) is God and is part of the trinity as taught by the Churches, why did he not clarify and teach this to us when he was given the opportunity, when he was asked about the greatest commandment?
    εἰ δὲ ἐν πνεύματι θεοῦ ἐγὼ ἐκβάλλω τὰ δαιμόνια, ἄρα ἔφθασεν ἐφ᾽ ὑμᾶς ἡ βασιλεία τοῦ θεοῦ. ἢ πῶς δύναταί τις εἰσελθεῖν εἰς τὴν οἰκίαν τοῦ ἰσχυροῦ καὶ τὰ σκεύη αὐτοῦ ἁρπάσαι, ἐὰν μὴ πρῶτον δήσῃ τὸν ἰσχυρόν; καὶ τότε τὴν οἰκίαν αὐτοῦ διαρπάσει. ὁ μὴ ὢν μετ᾽ ἐμοῦ κατ᾽ ἐμοῦ ἐστιν, καὶ ὁ μὴ συνάγων μετ᾽ ἐμοῦ σκορπίζει. διὰ τοῦτο λέγω ὑμῖν, πᾶσα ἁμαρτία καὶ βλασφημία ἀφεθήσεται τοῖς ἀνθρώποις, ἡ δὲ τοῦ πνεύματος βλασφημία οὐκ ἀφεθήσεται. καὶ ὃς ἐὰν εἴπῃ λόγον κατὰ τοῦ υἱοῦ τοῦ ἀνθρώπου, ἀφεθήσεται αὐτῶ· ὃς δ᾽ ἂν εἴπῃ κατὰ τοῦ πνεύματος τοῦ ἁγίου, οὐκ ἀφεθήσεται αὐτῶ οὔτε ἐν τούτῳ τῶ αἰῶνι οὔτε ἐν τῶ μέλλοντι. ἢ ποιήσατε τὸ δένδρον καλὸν καὶ τὸν καρπὸν αὐτοῦ καλόν, ἢ ποιήσατε τὸ δένδρον σαπρὸν καὶ τὸν καρπὸν αὐτοῦ σαπρόν· ἐκ γὰρ τοῦ καρποῦ τὸ δένδρον γινώσκεται. γεννήματα ἐχιδνῶν, πῶς δύνασθε ἀγαθὰ λαλεῖν πονηροὶ ὄντες; ἐκ γὰρ τοῦ περισσεύματος τῆς καρδίας τὸ στόμα λαλεῖ.
    And one of the scribes came up and heard them disputing with one another, and seeing that he answered them well, asked him, "Which commandment is the most important of all?" Jesus answered, "The most important is, Hear, O Israel: The Lord our God, the Lord is one. And you shall love the Lord your God with all your heart and with all your soul and with all your mind and with all your strength. 'The second is this: You shall love your neighbor as yourself.' There is no other commandment greater than these." And the scribe said to him, "You are right, Teacher. You have truly said that he is one, and there is no other besides him. And to love him with all the heart and with all the understanding and with all the strength, and to love one's neighbor as oneself, is much more than all whole burnt offerings and sacrifices." And when Jesus saw that he answered wisely, he said to him, "You are not far from the kingdom of God." And after that no one dared to ask him any more questions.
    Bible (ESV)
    Mark
    12:28-34
    Recall from John 8:54 above, Jesus (A.S.) knew that Jews believed in one absolute supreme being, who is the Father only. Having this knowledge, the above encounter in Mark 12:28-34 is therefore the perfect opportunity for Jesus (A.S.) to teach the scribe/learned Jew about the new nature of God. That is, (again, I don't intend to judge the belief of our Christian brothers, but simply to clarify and learn from them) if trinity is indeed what the Bible teaches and that Jesus (A.S.) is part of the triune God, shouldn't Jesus (A.S.) reject the absolute oneness of God as believed by the Jews? Instead clarify and teach that God is part of the trinity? The shema which is the phrase "Hear, O Israel: The Lord our God, the Lord is one" (see Deuteronomy 6:4) is the core belief of the Jews, from what I found in my humble research: they actually recite this several times in a day in their prayers. I'm not trying to brag, but the fact is and anyone can confirm this, Jews and Muslims pray to the same one God; and since Jesus (A.S.) is a Jew, shouldn't we worship his God alone? As he already thought us to do in Matthew 4:10?
  7. If Jesus (A.S.) is God, why would he call the Father as the ONLY TRUE God?
    αὕτη δέ ἐστιν ἡ αἰώνιος ζωή, ἵνα γινώσκωσιν σὲ τὸν μόνον ἀληθινὸν θεὸν καὶ ὃν ἀπέστειλας ἰησοῦν χριστόν.
    And this is eternal life, that they know you, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom you have sent.
    Bible (ESV)
    John
    17:3
    I don't intend to be rude, but because the verse above is so explicit, it therefore suggest that if trinity did exist, then according to this explicit statement by Jesus (A.S.), the other godheads associated to the Father are not true gods.
  8. If the atonement of sins is the sacrifice of Jesus (A.S.) because that's what the Old Testament says (see Leviticus 17:11) accordingly, then can we also use the Old Testament to check as to who God is? I try to be humble as much as possible, but I did my best and finished reading Matthew and Mark, but still working on Luke, with few chapters on John, but if you read the Gospels, from Matthew to John, Jesus (A.S.) is also called the Son of Man, for example Matthew 8:20, Mark 2:10, Luke 5:24, John 3:13, etc. Therefore, if Jesus (A.S.) is the Son of Man, then why does the Old Testament say that God is not a man or a Son of Man?
    לֹ֣א אִ֥ישׁ אֵל֙ וִֽיכַזֵּ֔ב וּבֶן־אָדָ֖ם וְיִתְנֶחָ֑ם הַה֤וּא אָמַר֙ וְלֹ֣א יַעֲשֶׂ֔ה וְדִבֶּ֖ר וְלֹ֥א יְקִימֶֽנָּה
    God is not man, that he should lie, or a Son of Man, that he should change his mind. Has he said, and will he not do it? Or has he spoken, and will he not fulfill it?
    Bible (ESV)
    Numbers
    23:19
    Further, from my humble research, there is a verse in the bible where a man claimed himself to be God, and the response of God is in the following verse:
    בֶּן־אָדָ֡ם אֱמֹר֩ לִנְגִ֨יד צֹ֜ר כֹּֽה־אָמַ֣ר׀ אֲדֹנָ֣י יְהוִֹ֗ה יַ֣עַן גָּבַ֤הּ לִבְּךָ֙ וַתֹּ֙אמֶר֙ אֵ֣ל אָ֔נִי מוֹשַׁ֧ב אֱלֹהִ֛ים יָשַׁ֖בְתִּי בְּלֵ֣ב יַמִּ֑ים וְאַתָּ֤ה אָדָם֙ וְֽלֹא־אֵ֔ל וַתִּתֵּ֥ן לִבְּךָ֖ כְּלֵ֥ב אֱלֹהִֽים׃
    “Son of man, say to the prince of Tyre, Thus says the Lord God: “Because your heart is proud, and you have said, ‘I am a god, I sit in the seat of the gods, in the heart of the seas,’ yet you are but a man, and no god, though you make your heart like the heart of a god.
    Bible (ESV)
    Ezekiel
    28:2
    Another verse where God said He is not a man is in the book of Hosea:
    לֹ֤א אֶֽעֱשֶׂה֙ חֲר֣וֹן אַפִּ֔י לֹ֥א אָשׁ֖וּב לְשַׁחֵ֣ת אֶפְרָ֑יִם כִּ֣י אֵ֤ל אָֽנֹכִי֙ וְלֹא־אִ֔ישׁ בְּקִרְבְּךָ֣ קָד֔וֹשׁ וְלֹ֥א אָב֖וֹא בְּעִֽיר׃
    I will not execute my burning anger; I will not again destroy Ephraim; for I am God and not a man, the Holy One in your midst, and I will not come in wrath.
    Bible (ESV)
    Hosea
    11:9
  9. I once attended a mass at a Christian Church and I also learned this from one of the Bible Study I attended, at one point of the session I heard the speaker saying, "we are all sinners and we cannot uphold the law --- the ten commandments". From doing research, I found out that the reason is due to the writings of Paul, where he emphasized that we cannot be saved by keeping the law, or good works, but through faith in Jesus (A.S.), who accordingly is God. See the verse below on why we cannot uphold the law according to Paul,
    ὁ γὰρ νόμος ὀργὴν κατεργάζεται, οὗ δὲ οὐκ ἔστιν νόμος, οὐδὲ παράβασις.
    For the law brings wrath, but where there is no law there is no transgression.
    Bible (ESV)
    Romans
    4:15
    ἐγὼ δὲ ἔζων χωρὶς νόμου ποτέ· ἐλθούσης δὲ τῆς ἐντολῆς ἡ ἁμαρτία ἀνέζησεν,
    I was once alive apart from the law, but when the commandment came, sin came alive and I died.
    Bible (ESV)
    Romans
    7:9
    Οὐδὲν ἄρα νῦν κατάκριμα τοῖς ἐν Χριστῷ Ἰησοῦ· ὁ γὰρ νόμος τοῦ πνεύματος τῆς ζωῆς ἐν Χριστῷ Ἰησοῦ ἠλευθέρωσέν σε ἀπὸ τοῦ νόμου τῆς ἁμαρτίας καὶ τοῦ θανάτου. τὸ γὰρ ἀδύνατον τοῦ νόμου, ἐν ᾧ ἠσθένει διὰ τῆς σαρκός, ὁ θεὸς τὸν ἑαυτοῦ υἱὸν πέμψας ἐν ὁμοιώματι σαρκὸς ἁμαρτίας καὶ περὶ ἁμαρτίας κατέκρινε τὴν ἁμαρτίαν ἐν τῇ σαρκί, ἵνα τὸ δικαίωμα τοῦ νόμου πληρωθῇ ἐν ἡμῖν τοῖς μὴ κατὰ σάρκα περιπατοῦσιν ἀλλὰ κατὰ πνεῦμα·
    There is therefore now no condemnation for those who are in Christ Jesus. For the law of the Spirit of life has set you free in Christ Jesus from the law of sin and death. For God has done what the law, weakened by the flesh, could not do. By sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh and for sin, he condemned sin in the flesh, in order that the righteous requirement of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not according to the flesh but according to the Spirit.
    Bible (ESV)
    Romans
    8:1-4
    οὐκ ἀθετῶ τὴν χάριν τοῦ θεοῦ· εἰ γὰρ διὰ νόμου δικαιοσύνη, ἄρα Χριστὸς δωρεὰν ἀπέθανεν.
    I do not nullify the grace of God, for if righteousness were through the law, then Christ died for no purpose.
    Bible (ESV)
    Galatians
    2:21
    Therefore, according to Paul we cannot be saved by keeping the law, but by faith in Jesus (A.S.), for the law accordingly brings wrath; and if we were to base our righteousness through the law, then Christ died for no purpose. Hence, we cannot uphold the law including the first commandment which is to uphold the absolute oneness of God. If that is the case, then why (this time) according to Jesus (A.S.) (not Paul) that, he did not come to abolish the law and instead fulfill it? I sincerely apologize if this was sensitive to ask.
    μὴ νομίσητε ὅτι ἦλθον καταλῦσαι τὸν νόμον ἢ τοὺς προφήτας· οὐκ ἦλθον καταλῦσαι ἀλλὰ πληρῶσαι. ἀμὴν γὰρ λέγω ὑμῖν, ἕως ἂν παρέλθῃ ὁ οὐρανὸς καὶ ἡ γῆ, ἰῶτα ἓν ἢ μία κεραία οὐ μὴ παρέλθῃ ἀπὸ τοῦ νόμου ἕως ἂν πάντα γένηται. ὃς ἐὰν οὗν λύσῃ μίαν τῶν ἐντολῶν τούτων τῶν ἐλαχίστων καὶ διδάξῃ οὕτως τοὺς ἀνθρώπους, ἐλάχιστος κληθήσεται ἐν τῇ βασιλείᾳ τῶν οὐρανῶν· ὃς δ᾽ ἂν ποιήσῃ καὶ διδάξῃ, οὖτος μέγας κληθήσεται ἐν τῇ βασιλείᾳ τῶν οὐρανῶν.
    Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. For truly, I say to you, until heaven and earth pass away, not an iota, not a dot, will pass from the Law until all is accomplished. Therefore, whoever relaxes one of the least of these commandments and teaches others to do the same will be called least in the kingdom of heaven, but whoever does them and teaches them will be called great in the kingdom of heaven.
    Bible (ESV)
    Matthew
    5:17-19
    Why would Paul relaxes the law when Jesus (A.S.) said not to? I do respect what our Christian brothers believe, but I'm honestly confuse as to who should I follow, Jesus (A.S.) or Paul? Further, I also don’t understand though I don't intend to judge them, honestly, why almost all Christians eat pork? Isn't it prohibited in the law to eat it? From what we have above, according to Jesus (A.S.) not Paul, that by eating pork will relax the law.
    וְאֶת־הַ֠חֲזִיר כִּֽי־מַפְרִ֨יס פַּרְסָ֜ה ה֗וּא וְשֹׁסַ֥ע שֶׁ֙סַע֙ פַּרְסָ֔ה וְה֖וּא גֵּרָ֣ה לֹֽא־יִגָּ֑ר טָמֵ֥א ה֖וּא לָכֶֽם׃
    And the pig, because it parts the hoof and is cloven-footed but does not chew the cud, is unclean to you.
    Bible (ESV)
    Leviticus
    11:7
    וְאֶת־הַ֠חֲזִיר כִּֽי־מַפְרִ֨יס פַּרְסָ֥ה הוּא֙ וְלֹ֣א גֵרָ֔ה טָמֵ֥א ה֖וּא לָכֶ֑ם מִבְּשָׂרָם֙ לֹ֣א תֹאכֵ֔לוּ וּבְנִבְלָתָ֖ם לֹ֥א תִגָּֽעוּ׃ ס
    And the pig, because it parts the hoof but does not chew the cud, is unclean for you. Their flesh you shall not eat, and their carcasses you shall not touch.
    Bible (ESV)
    Deuteronomy
    14:8
    As far as I know, because Jesus (A.S.) is a Jew, he never indeed ate pork, but instead ate kosher foods -- a Jewish equivalent of the Halal foods. Another verse related to this is the following:
    οὐ πᾶς ὁ λέγων μοι, κύριε κύριε, εἰσελεύσεται εἰς τὴν βασιλείαν τῶν οὐρανῶν, ἀλλ᾽ ὁ ποιῶν τὸ θέλημα τοῦ πατρός μου τοῦ ἐν τοῖς οὐρανοῖς. πολλοὶ ἐροῦσίν μοι ἐν ἐκείνῃ τῇ ἡμέρᾳ, κύριε κύριε, οὐ τῶ σῶ ὀνόματι ἐπροφητεύσαμεν, καὶ τῶ σῶ ὀνόματι δαιμόνια ἐξεβάλομεν, καὶ τῶ σῶ ὀνόματι δυνάμεις πολλὰς ἐποιήσαμεν; καὶ τότε ὁμολογήσω αὐτοῖς ὅτι οὐδέποτε ἔγνων ὑμᾶς· ἀποχωρεῖτε ἀπ᾽ ἐμοῦ οἱ ἐργαζόμενοι τὴν ἀνομίαν.
    Not everyone who says to me, 'Lord, Lord,' will enter the kingdom of heaven, but the one who does the will of my Father who is in heaven. On that day many will say to me, 'Lord, Lord, did we not prophesy in your name, and cast out demons in your name, and do many mighty works in your name?' And then will I declare to them, 'I never knew you; depart from me, you workers of lawlessness'.
    Bible (ESV)
    Matthew
    7:21-23
    I apologize, but I'm trying not to be rude, I apologize if I have to ask this. This verse suggests that, if I stick to the will of the Father by following His law, then Jesus (A.S.) will acknowledge me on the day of judgement. Otherwise (by abolishing the law), I will be among the workers of lawlessness?

    I do understand why some Christians argue that there may be Muslims who eat pork as well, just like some Iglesia ni Cristo (INC) who does not follow the teachings in the Bible. This is my honest answer: any Muslim who eat pork is not a Muslim. A Muslim is someone who follows the Torah, the Gospels and the Qur'an, and you cannot find a Muslim who eat pork. When I say Torah and Gospels, I'm referring to the original Torah and Gospels that Christian scholars acknowledged (I understand this and respect it) to be nowhere to be found.

    Further, in one of my engagement, some Christians argue that Jesus (A.S.) was sent to the Gentiles as well. If I understand it correctly, this argument seems to suggest that, because the Gentiles don't follow the Torah, and so they eat pork, and since Jesus (A.S.) was sent to them as well, somehow eating pork is accepted because Gentiles still do eat pork today. (I apologize if I hurt the readers, but I sincerely don't intend to be rude. I sincerely apologize) However, we know that there were Gentiles who accepted Jesus (A.S.) and there were Gentiles who did not accept him. I apologize for asking this, but are we saying then that this argument is meant to suggest, that we need to follow the practice of the Gentiles who did not follow Jesus (A.S.)? Instead of following the practice of the followers of Jesus (A.S.)?

    One final point for this question that I want to make is that, there are some writings of Paul where he supported the law. Unfortunately, from what I observed is that, this is not emphasized in the Bible Study. Thus having this experience, makes me doubt if every Christians believed that Paul also teaches to follow the law by good works, since in all Bible Study I attended, the emphasis is, "Righteousness through faith and not by good works". Further, if righteousness were through the law, then that directly contradicts the purpose of Crucifixion. What is the purpose of Crucifixion of Jesus (A.S.) if Paul told us to follow the law? I sincerely apologize if this was sensitive.

  10. Again, the common argument I learned is that, we are all sinners and we cannot uphold the law as taught by Paul not Jesus (A.S.). Hence, according to the teachings of Paul, we need Jesus (A.S.) as atonement for our sins. However, by definition, we know that God is omniscient and wise, why would he give the law and then later found out (accordingly) that we cannot uphold it? Isn't God not a Son of Man, that he should change his mind according to Numbers 23:19? Isn't God supposed to not change according to Malachi 3:6? Why would he even change from 1 to 3 in 1? I sincerely apologize if this was sensitive to ask.
    כִּ֛י אֲנִ֥י יְהוָ֖ה לֹ֣א שָׁנִ֑יתִי וְאַתֶּ֥ם בְּנֵֽי־יַעֲקֹ֖ב לֹ֥א כְלִיתֶֽם׃
    "For I the Lord do not change; therefore you, O children of Jacob, are not consumed.
    Bible (ESV)
    Malachi
    3:6
  11. According to Christianity, God died for our sins. If that is the case, I honestly don’t understand how can God die? If God died during crucifixion, then who is in charge of the world and the heavens? From what I read, the common response here is that God did not die, but only the human part of him. However, if that is the case, then why would they say God died for our sins in the first place if he didn’t? I sincerely apologize again if this was sensitive to ask.
  12. If Jesus (A.S.) is not knowledgeable about his return, as in the previous question in reference to Matthew 24:36, because from what I learned is that, the common argument to address this question is due to fact that Jesus (A.S) is both man and God. If that is the case, then shouldn't we at least expect Jesus (A.S.) to be God when we need him to? And be man when he has to. Salvation accordingly is through him; I sincerely apologize, I don’t intend to be rude, but shouldn't he at least make it clear to us that he is God? Because it is a matter of living in paradise or hell eternally. Miracles can be used as a proof, but previous prophets did miracles too and their miracles is not from them but from the permission of God, and they were sent by God the same as Jesus (A.S.); and even if the miracles were enough proofs, how are we going to reconcile what Jesus (A.S.) said about the only true God, who according to him is the Father (John 17:3)? For purpose of clarity, allow me to cite an example, (again, I apologize, but I’m trying to express this in a respectful manner, I don’t intend to be judgmental, the fact that I studied and spent time reading the bible, simply suggest that I didn’t judged it by what people say) if someone attempts to run for presidency, the candidate shouldn't do body language or implied messages for us to assume that he will run for president. He clearly needs to go to the stage and declare it to the public. The same situation when you doubt someone, say in a relationship (e.g. your child in love with someone, or your relationship with God, etc.). You wouldn't feel at peace if your partner (or e.g. the one courting your child, or your God) is beating around the bush without giving direct commitment. What I’m trying to respectfully say is, if Jesus (A.S.) is God, the basic assumption I expect is that he himself has declared it. If so, I sincerely want to be guided as to where it is in the bible where he says "I am God"? For purpose of sincerety, I did looked into it already and surfed the web. The findings I found is that, there is none in the bible just as the word "bible" or “trinity” not found in the bible. However, (I apologize for this long explanation) the word bible simply refers to the holy book of Christianity, you can name the book anything you want; and the word “trinity” simply refers to the 3 godheads in 1 essence. The name is not important, what is important is the definition. For example, you cannot find the word “Doctor” in the Japanese books, but you can find the definition of it, and you say “Doctor” is in the Japanese books because it has the same definition as the word “Ishi” (医師). Therefore, if Jesus (A.S.) is God and is part of the trinity, what is the definition that we must expect? Well I think we should agree that, Jesus (A.S.) should have said, “I am God, part of the 3 godheads (the father, the son, and the Holy Spirit) in 1 essence, and you should worship me”. If we refer back to our analogy before respectfully, I think what matters to us as listeners, is for someone whom we want to support to at least declare that he will run for president. Further, if Jesus (A.S.) is both man and god, I sincerely don't know where is the foundation of this in the bible? Are there any verses declaring this? So that we don’t have to make assumptions and to remove confusions? (I sincerely apologize if this was sensitive to ask) However, we have seen already from Numbers 23:19, that God is not a man or a Son of Man. This question was raised in the Qur’an in the following verse:
    وَإِذْ قَالَ ٱللَّهُ يَٰعِيسَى ٱبْنَ مَرْيَمَ ءَأَنتَ قُلْتَ لِلنَّاسِ ٱتَّخِذُونِى وَأُمِّىَ إِلَٰهَيْنِ مِن دُونِ ٱللَّهِ قَالَ سُبْحَٰنَكَ مَا يَكُونُ لِىٓ أَنْ أَقُولَ مَا لَيْسَ لِى بِحَقٍّ إِن كُنتُ قُلْتُهُۥ فَقَدْ عَلِمْتَهُۥ تَعْلَمُ مَا فِى نَفْسِى وَلَآ أَعْلَمُ مَا فِى نَفْسِكَ إِنَّكَ أَنتَ عَلَّٰمُ ٱلْغُيُوبِ مَا قُلْتُ لَهُمْ إِلَّا مَآ أَمَرْتَنِى بِهِۦٓ أَنِ ٱعْبُدُوا۟ ٱللَّهَ رَبِّى وَرَبَّكُمْ وَكُنتُ عَلَيْهِمْ شَهِيدًا مَّا دُمْتُ فِيهِمْ فَلَمَّا تَوَفَّيْتَنِى كُنتَ أَنتَ ٱلرَّقِيبَ عَلَيْهِمْ وَأَنتَ عَلَىٰ كُلِّ شَىْءٍ شَهِيدٌ إِن تُعَذِّبْهُمْ فَإِنَّهُمْ عِبَادُكَ وَإِن تَغْفِرْ لَهُمْ فَإِنَّكَ أَنتَ ٱلْعَزِيزُ ٱلْحَكِيمُ
    And [beware the Day] when Allah will say, "O Jesus, Son of Mary, did you say to the people, 'Take me and my mother as deities besides Allah?'" He will say, "Exalted are You! It was not for me to say that to which I have no right. If I had said it, You would have known it. You know what is within myself, and I do not know what is within Yourself. Indeed, it is You who is Knower of the unseen. I said not to them except what You commanded me - to worship Allah, my Lord and your Lord. And I was a witness over them as long as I was among them; but when You took me up, You were the Observer over them, and You are, over all things, Witness. If You should punish them - indeed they are Your servants; but if You forgive them - indeed it is You who is the Exalted in Might, the Wise.
    Qur'an
    Al-Maida (The Table)
    116-118
    I sincerely apologize if you did not expect this, but as a seeker of truth, I think we don't have to judge any book by its cover, may it be Hebrew Bible, Christian Bible, Hindus Religious book, etc.. I use the Qur’an here despite the fact that our Christian brothers don’t believe in it. I respect my non-Muslim readers, but I’m a Muslim who only wants truth for the sake of God, so I hope my non-Muslim readers will understand if I use it, of course, only when necessary. The question being posted here does make a point, (I’m not trying to be biased, but honestly it does make a point). We can ask therefore if Jesus (A.S.) did say "I am God and you should worship me"? If there is a verse, then at least we have an evidence to present to God in the day of judgement, if in case Jesus (A.S.) will disassociate himself from us. Now if you say, God will not ask us because that statement is from the Qur’an (I understand if this is the respond of our Christian brothers and I respect that), and because the Qur’an is not acknowledged by the Christians, hence one might conclude that it won’t happen. But there is a “what if?” Isn’t it? There is a hole, so do we have something to present if in case? I sincerely apologize.
  13. If salvation is achieved by believing in the doctrine of trinity (that is, claiming Jesus (A.S.) as God), why would Jesus (A.S.) say that, salvation is from the Jews? Or in other words, why would he acknowledged that salvation is achieved by upholding the law (that is, God is one and have no partners)?
    ὑμεῖς προσκυνεῖτε ὃ οὐκ οἴδατε· ἡμεῖς προσκυνοῦμεν ὃ οἴδαμεν, ὅτι ἡ σωτηρία ἐκ τῶν ἰουδαίων ἐστίν.
    You worship what you do not know; we worship what we know, for salvation is from the Jews.
    Bible (ESV)
    John
    4:22
  14. The popular verse in the bible that claims Jesus’ (A.S.) divinity is John 10:30.
    ἐγὼ καὶ ὁ πατὴρ ἕν ἐσμεν.
    I and the Father are one.
    Bible (ESV)
    John
    10:30
    The verse is an interesting one, and it is almost explicitly stated. I’m trying not to be biased, although for Christians, this is explicitly stated already. The reason follows from the fact that, the other verses I presented seems to be not supporting this verse. Not supporting if we think that Jesus (A.S.) and the Father as “one being”. Let me cite an example again, if the vice-president says he and the president are one, wouldn’t it simply suggest that they are one in purpose/mission? Unless the vice-president says he and the president are “one being”, then that is very explicit. How then are we going to understand the meaning/context of this verse? I think we agree, that this is done by looking at other verses. If they are one as in “one being”, then some verses in the bible will be affected and hard to understand. For example, when Jesus (A.S.) needs the help of God as in Luke 22:42, he prayed to the Father; another in Matthew 27:46 and Mark 15:34, he called God. Again, if I were to say these, I would do it in a respectful manner, that if Jesus (A.S.) and God are “one being”, was Jesus (A.S.) praying to himself then? Was he calling himself? And how can God pray? Isn’t God self-sufficient? Isn’t God not a Son of Man (Numbers 23:19)? Isn’t God invisible (1 Timothy 1:17)?

    Further, if we are to agree on that verse believing that Jesus (A.S.) and the Father as “one being”, where is the Holy Spirit? Shouldn’t the three of them one? Is there a verse where it says Jesus (A.S.) and the Holy Spirit are one? Moreover, is there a verse where it says the Father and the Holy Spirit are one? Also, what about the other succeeding verses where Jesus (A.S.) talks about his disciples to God?

    καὶ οὐκέτι εἰμὶ ἐν τῶ κόσμῳ, καὶ αὐτοὶ ἐν τῶ κόσμῳ εἰσίν, κἀγὼ πρὸς σὲ ἔρχομαι. πάτερ ἅγιε, τήρησον αὐτοὺς ἐν τῶ ὀνόματί σου ᾧ δέδωκάς μοι, ἵνα ὦσιν ἓν καθὼς ἡμεῖς.
    And I am no longer in the world, but they are in the world, and I am coming to you. Holy Father, keep them in your name, which you have given me, that they may be one, even as we are one.
    Bible (ESV)
    John
    17:11
    οὐ περὶ τούτων δὲ ἐρωτῶ μόνον, ἀλλὰ καὶ περὶ τῶν πιστευόντων διὰ τοῦ λόγου αὐτῶν εἰς ἐμέ, ἵνα πάντες ἓν ὦσιν, καθὼς σύ, πάτερ, ἐν ἐμοὶ κἀγὼ ἐν σοί, ἵνα καὶ αὐτοὶ ἐν ἡμῖν ὦσιν, ἵνα ὁ κόσμος πιστεύῃ ὅτι σύ με ἀπέστειλας. κἀγὼ τὴν δόξαν ἣν δέδωκάς μοι δέδωκα αὐτοῖς, ἵνα ὦσιν ἓν καθὼς ἡμεῖς ἕν, ἐγὼ ἐν αὐτοῖς καὶ σὺ ἐν ἐμοί, ἵνα ὦσιν τετελειωμένοι εἰς ἕν, ἵνα γινώσκῃ ὁ κόσμος ὅτι σύ με ἀπέστειλας καὶ ἠγάπησας αὐτοὺς καθὼς ἐμὲ ἠγάπησας.
    “I do not ask for these only, but also for those who will believe in me through their word, that they may all be one, just as you, Father, are in me, and I in you, that they also may be in us, so that the world may believe that you have sent me. The glory that you have given me I have given to them, that they may be one even as we are one, I in them and you in me, that they may become perfectly one, so that the world may know that you sent me and loved them even as you loved me.
    Bible (ESV)
    John
    17:20-23
    If I interpret this in the same way as in John 10:30 above, then the followers of Jesus (A.S.) are also God; and this time, trinity will not hold because it’s not 3 in 1 anymore, but more than that. Sincerely, shouldn’t these verses be interpreted in this way: that these verses simply suggest that Jesus (A.S.) is referring to one purpose or one mission with the Father, and that is to worship the Father only and follow His prophets?
  15. If Jesus (A.S.) is God, why would he complain of being called good and says that none is good but God (the Father) only?
    καὶ ἐπὶ ἡγεμόνας δὲ καὶ βασιλεῖς ἀχθήσεσθε ἕνεκεν ἐμοῦ εἰς μαρτύριον αὐτοῖς καὶ τοῖς ἔθνεσιν.
    And Jesus said to him, “Why do you call me good? No one is good except God alone.
    Bible (ESV)
    Mark
    10:18
    This is also written in Luke 18:19. On the other hand, Jesus (A.S.) is known to be a prophet in the bible as well and never complained about it.
    ἀπεκρίθη ἡ γυνὴ καὶ εἶπεν αὐτῶ, οὐκ ἔχω ἄνδρα. λέγει αὐτῇ ὁ ἰησοῦς, καλῶς εἶπας ὅτι ἄνδρα οὐκ ἔχω· πέντε γὰρ ἄνδρας ἔσχες, καὶ νῦν ὃν ἔχεις οὐκ ἔστιν σου ἀνήρ· τοῦτο ἀληθὲς εἴρηκας. λέγει αὐτῶ ἡ γυνή, κύριε, θεωρῶ ὅτι προφήτης εἶ σύ. οἱ πατέρες ἡμῶν ἐν τῶ ὄρει τούτῳ προσεκύνησαν· καὶ ὑμεῖς λέγετε ὅτι ἐν ἱεροσολύμοις ἐστὶν ὁ τόπος ὅπου προσκυνεῖν δεῖ. λέγει αὐτῇ ὁ ἰησοῦς, πίστευέ μοι, γύναι, ὅτι ἔρχεται ὥρα ὅτε οὔτε ἐν τῶ ὄρει τούτῳ οὔτε ἐν ἱεροσολύμοις προσκυνήσετε τῶ πατρί. ὑμεῖς προσκυνεῖτε ὃ οὐκ οἴδατε· ἡμεῖς προσκυνοῦμεν ὃ οἴδαμεν, ὅτι ἡ σωτηρία ἐκ τῶν ἰουδαίων ἐστίν.
    The woman answered him, “I have no husband.” Jesus said to her, “You are right in saying, ‘I have no husband’; for you have had five husbands, and the one you now have is not your husband. What you have said is true.” The woman said to him, “Sir, I perceive that you are a prophet. Our fathers worshiped on this mountain, but you say that in Jerusalem is the place where people ought to worship.” Jesus said to her, “Woman, believe me, the hour is coming when neither on this mountain nor in Jerusalem will you worship the Father. You worship what you do not know; we worship what we know, for salvation is from the Jews.
    Bible (ESV)
    John
    4:17-22
    καὶ εἰσελθόντος αὐτοῦ εἰς ἱεροσόλυμα ἐσείσθη πᾶσα ἡ πόλις λέγουσα, τίς ἐστιν οὖτος; οἱ δὲ ὄχλοι ἔλεγον, οὖτός ἐστιν ὁ προφήτης ἰησοῦς ὁ ἀπὸ ναζαρὲθ τῆς γαλιλαίας.
    And when he entered Jerusalem, the whole city was stirred up, saying, “Who is this?” And the crowds said, “This is the prophet Jesus, from Nazareth of Galilee.”
    Bible (ESV)
    Matthew
    21:10-11
  16. From the above verses, the doctrine of trinity is honestly difficult to understand, even according to a Christian apologist Dr. James White (if you have watched debates between Muslim and Christian, you should know this guy very well. He recently debated with Bro. Joe Ventilacion of Iglesia ni Cristo), where he wrote,

    “For many Christians, the Trinity is an abstract principle, a confusing and difficult doctrine that they believe, although they are not really sure why in their honest moments.” - James White, “Loving the Trinity,” Christian Research Journal, vol. 21, no. 22.

    This is just my honest opinion, but I think the main reason is because the above verses do not follow trinity. It is confusing to be honest as Dr. White write for most Christians, and I have asked a couple of Christians already, those whom I can bravely ask straightforward. I also looked into debates about this, but still confusing. I tried to understand it and unify it with the above verses, but still most Christians I asked don’t also understand it as well. For some, they tend to look at it as a mystery, but that is hard/difficult to simply agree or accept in that state --- mystery (believed upon by many) without understanding. Especially, when it is the core belief and is being taught in the Church. It won’t make someone at peace if something is difficult to understand, maybe for some they can stand it, but I’m one of those who are not at peace, believing something without understanding (in all honesty). However, according to the bible, God is not a God of confusion, but of peace.

    οὐ γάρ ἐστιν ἀκαταστασίας ὁ θεὸς ἀλλὰ εἰρήνης. ὡς ἐν πάσαις ταῖς ἐκκλησίαις τῶν ἁγίων,
    For God is not a God of confusion but of peace. As in all the churches of the saints,
    Bible (ESV)
    1 Corinthians
    14:33
    According to Albert Einstein which I agree on is that, “Peace cannot be kept by force. It can only be achieved through understanding”. It cannot be kept by force, that is, force by waging war; or force by simply believing without understanding. Further, another quote from this scientist which I also agree on is that, “If you can’t explain it simply, you don’t understand it well enough”.
  17. One evidence where Jesus (A.S.) said that he is God is given in the following verse:
    εἶπεν αὐτοῖς Ἰησοῦς· Ἀμὴν ἀμὴν λέγω ὑμῖν, πρὶν Ἀβραὰμ γενέσθαι ἐγὼ εἰμί.
    Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I am.”
    Bible (ESV)
    John
    8:58
    At first glance, one would not expect the interpretation of this verse. However, according to our Christian brothers this follows from the Old Testament where God, the Father, said to Moses (A.S.):
    וַיֹּ֨אמֶר מֹשֶׁ֜ה אֶל־הָֽאֱלֹהִ֗ים הִנֵּ֨ה אָנֹכִ֣י בָא֮ אֶל־בְּנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵל֒ וְאָמַרְתִּ֣י לָהֶ֔ם אֱלֹהֵ֥י אֲבוֹתֵיכֶ֖ם שְׁלָחַ֣נִי אֲלֵיכֶ֑ם וְאָֽמְרוּ־לִ֣י מַה־שְּׁמ֔וֹ מָ֥ה אֹמַ֖ר אֲלֵהֶֽם׃ וַיֹּ֤אמֶר אֱלֹהִים֙ אֶל־מֹשֶׁ֔ה אֶֽהְיֶ֖ה אֲשֶׁ֣ר אֶֽהְיֶ֑ה וַיֹּ֗אמֶר כֹּ֤ה תֹאמַר֙ לִבְנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵ֔ל אֶֽהְיֶ֖ה שְׁלָחַ֥נִי אֲלֵיכֶֽם׃
    Then Moses said to God, "If I come to the people of Israel and say to them, 'The God of your fathers has sent me to you,' and they ask me, 'What is his name?' what shall I say to them?" God said to Moses, "I am who I am." And he said, “Say this to the people of Israel: 'I am has sent me to you.'"
    Bible (ESV)
    Exodus
    3:13-14
    Accordingly, since Jesus (A.S.) emphasized "I am", then somehow he declared to be God, referring back to Exodus 3:14.

    I have to admit, honestly, this is so risky for us to make an assumption on what Jesus (A.S.) meant in the above verse, which is not explicit and ambiguous unless we look at the context. The reason follows from the fact that, we don't really know for sure, we simply relied on the phrase "I am" not even close to "I am God". It is also risky since, what was explicitly taught by Jesus (A.S.) in John 17:3 and many verses where he acknowledged that the Father is the only true God, seems to be of no value now. Instead, what we value now is something out of our own interpretation, something not explicitly stated by Jesus (A.S.). When I say explicitly stated, I mean Jesus (A.S.) saying "I am God" instead of "I am". Further, if we were the one to come up with this interpretation, shouldn't we at least be mindful of what the Old Testament repeatedly and explicitly conveyed, that God is but One God? Because if the intention of Jesus (A.S.) was to claim that he is God, he could have said it easily when he was given the opportunity in Mark 12:28-34.

    Supposed, for the sake of argument, we believe in that interpretation. Let's see the verse again and look at the greek phrase for "I am".

    εἶπεν αὐτοῖς Ἰησοῦς· Ἀμὴν ἀμὴν λέγω ὑμῖν, πρὶν Ἀβραὰμ γενέσθαι ἐγὼ εἰμί.
    Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I am.”
    Bible (ESV)
    John
    8:58
    Here, we highlighted the phrase "I am" both in greek (ἐγὼ εἰμί -- ego eimi) and in English. Looking at other verses in the New Testament, one would find the following:
    οἱ οὖν γείτονες καὶ οἱ θεωροῦντες αὐτὸν τὸ πρότερον ὅτι προσαίτης ἦν ἔλεγον· Οὐχ οὗτός ἐστιν ὁ καθήμενος καὶ προσαιτῶν; ἄλλοι ἔλεγον ὅτι Οὗτός ἐστιν· ἄλλοι ἔλεγον· Οὐχί, ἀλλὰ ὅμοιος αὐτῷ ἐστιν. ἐκεῖνος ἔλεγεν ὅτι Ἐγώ εἰμι.
    The neighbors and those who had seen him before as a beggar were saying, “Is this not the man who used to sit and beg?” Some said, “It is he.” Others said, “No, but he is like him.” He kept saying, "I am the man."
    Bible (ESV)
    John
    9:8-9
    Again, the word ἐγὼ εἰμί is used in John 9:9 with ἐ written as a capital letter. Therefore, the blind man in the verse also uttered the phrase "I am" in greek but translated as "I am the man". Are we saying that the man also claimed to be God in this case because of emphasizing ἐγὼ εἰμί? Of course not, instead the man simply says "I am the man you are talking about" not "I am God".

    Now let's take look at other verses to further support this interpretation:

    λέγει αὐτῷ ἡ γυνή· Οἶδα ὅτι Μεσσίας ἔρχεται, ὁ λεγόμενος χριστός· ὅταν ἔλθῃ ἐκεῖνος, ἀναγγελεῖ ἡμῖν ἅπαντα. λέγει αὐτῇ ὁ Ἰησοῦς· Ἐγώ εἰμι, ὁ λαλῶν σοι.
    The woman said to him, "I know that Messiah is coming (he who is called Christ). When he comes, he will tell us all things." Jesus said to her, "I who speak to you am he."
    Bible (ESV)
    John
    4:25-26
    The word Ἐγώ εἰμι is again used above, which in John 8:58 is translated as "I am". On the other hand, Christians are aware that in John 4:25-26 above, Jesus (A.S.) never meant to say "I am God", instead he was simply saying "I am the one who you are talking about, I am the Messiah". There are many other verses where the greek word Ἐγώ εἰμι is used and were translated properly contrary to John 8:58, one more evidence is the following:
    εἶπον οὖν ὑμῖν ὅτι ἀποθανεῖσθε ἐν ταῖς ἁμαρτίαις ὑμῶν· ἐὰν γὰρ μὴ πιστεύσητε ὅτι ἐγώ εἰμι, ἀποθανεῖσθε ἐν ταῖς ἁμαρτίαις ὑμῶν.
    I told you that you would die in your sins, for unless you believe that I am he you will die in your sins."
    Bible (ESV)
    John
    8:24
    In the above verse, Jesus (A.S.) was simply saying "unless you believe I am the promised Messiah you will die in your sins". He was not saying "I am God".

    Now that we understand the context on the meaning of the word ἐγὼ εἰμί, shouldn't we interpret John 8:58 as Jesus (A.S.) saying "Before Abraham existed, I am the one that they are talking about, the promised Messiah in the knowledge/mind of God". One might argue, why in the mind of God? Shouldn't it be Jesus (A.S.) existed not in the mind of God but rather existed before anyone existed? Well if that is the case, consider Ephesians 1:4,

    καθὼς ἐξελέξατο ἡμᾶς ἐν αὐτῷ πρὸ καταβολῆς κόσμου, εἶναι ἡμᾶς ἁγίους καὶ ἀμώμους κατενώπιον αὐτοῦ ἐν ἀγάπῃ,
    even as he chose us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and blameless before him. In love
    Bible (ESV)
    Ephesians
    1:4
    Does that mean we already existed before the foundation of the world? Of course not, rather we existed in the knowledge of God, and that's how we must properly interpret John 8:58, that Jesus (A.S.) was simply saying "Before Abraham existed, I am the one that they are talking about, the promised Messiah in the knowledge/mind of God". By doing that, everything will fit in to what Jesus (A.S.) preached in John 17:3.

Final Note
While religion encourages believers to have faith even though we don’t understand some of the teachings, or even the fact that we haven’t seen the characters of the bible. I think (just my personal opinion), what is important, is to at least make sure that by having faith, the risk is very small or close to none. From the above verses, it suggest that, upholding the belief on the absolute oneness of God (pure monotheism), as stated in the law, will at least secure a believer, because that's what Jesus (A.S.) taught (see Mark 12:28-34 and John 17:3) us. On the other hand, associating God with a partner places a risk and makes things confusing; and it seems to be a huge risk as God repeatedly warn us about this, see for example the following the verses below:
כֹּֽה־אָמַ֨ר יְהוָ֧ה מֶֽלֶךְ־יִשְׂרָאֵ֛ל וְגֹאֲלֹ֖ו יְהוָ֣ה צְבָאֹ֑ות אֲנִ֤י רִאשֹׁון֙ וַאֲנִ֣י אַחֲרֹ֔ון וּמִבַּלְעָדַ֖י אֵ֥ין אֱלֹהִֽים׃ וּמִֽי־כָמֹ֣ונִי יִקְרָ֗א וְיַגִּידֶ֤הָ וְיַעְרְכֶ֙הָ֙ לִ֔י מִשּׂוּמִ֖י עַם־עֹולָ֑ם וְאֹתִיֹּ֛ות וַאֲשֶׁ֥ר תָּבֹ֖אנָה יַגִּ֥ידוּ לָֽמֹו׃ אַֽל־תִּפְחֲדוּ֙ וְאַל־תִּרְה֔וּ הֲלֹ֥א מֵאָ֛ז הִשְׁמַעְתִּ֥יךָ וְהִגַּ֖דְתִּי וְאַתֶּ֣ם עֵדָ֑י הֲיֵ֤שׁ אֱלֹ֙והַּ֙ מִבַּלְעָדַ֔י וְאֵ֥ין צ֖וּר בַּל־יָדָֽעְתִּי׃
Thus says the Lord, the King of Israel and his Redeemer, the Lord of hosts: “I am the first and I am the last; besides me there is no god. Who is like me? Let him proclaim it. Let him declare and set it before me, since I appointed an ancient people. Let them declare what is to come, and what will happen. Fear not, nor be afraid; have I not told you from of old and declared it? And you are my witnesses! Is there a God besides me? There is no Rock; I know not any.”
Bible (ESV)
Isaiah
44:6-8
לֹֽ֣א יִהְיֶֽה־לְךָ֛֩ אֱלֹהִ֥֨ים אֲחֵרִ֖֜ים עַל־פָּנָֽ֗י
You shall have no other gods before me.
Bible (ESV)
Exodus
20:3
יִרְבּ֥וּ עַצְּבוֹתָם֮ אַחֵ֪ר מָ֫הָ֥רוּ בַּל־אַסִּ֣יךְ נִסְכֵּיהֶ֣ם מִדָּ֑ם וּֽבַל־אֶשָּׂ֥א אֶת־שְׁ֝מוֹתָ֗ם עַל־שְׂפָתָֽי׃
The sorrows of those who run after another god shall multiply; their drink offerings of blood I will not pour out or take their names on my lips.
Bible (ESV)
Psalms
16:4
Further, as I tried my best to understand it, I can never comprehend, in all truth and honesty, the fact that despite I follow all practices of Jesus (A.S.), from believing that God is but one God (Mark 12:28-34 and John 17:3), to believing that he is a prophet (Matthew 21:10-11 and John 4:17-22) and not God (John 4:22), and that I believe in what he preached about following the Laws of Moses (Matthew 5:17-19), and that I don't eat pork just as Jesus (A.S.), and that I fast closely the way how Jesus (A.S.) fasted (Matthew 4:2), and that I pray the way how he prayed (Muslims pray by prostration just as how Jesus (A.S.) prayed in Matthew 26:39), and despite that Muslim Women dressed the way how his Mother, Mary (may God peace be with her), dressed (even Paul supported it in 1 Corinthians 11:2–16, 1 Timothy 2:9, 1 Corinthians 11:15). Despite all these, I am still considered as not following Jesus (A.S.) according to Christians. Rather, not following all these is actually considered as true followers of Jesus (A.S.) according to Christians.